First, I'd like that you read this littler article (http://ift.tt/1pGnsiw). The solution given by Euler that coonects the system cartesian (x, y) with the curvature κ of the "cesaro system" (s, κ), is that the derivative of the cartesian tangential angle φ* wrt arc length s results the curvature κ.
However, in the 2D plane is definied the polar tangential angle ψ* too. Thus if I want express a curve given s and κ in terms of r and θ (or vice-versa) I need to establish a connection between the curvature κ and the polar system. So, would be correct to say that the derivative of ψ wrt s is equal to κ?
*
http://ift.tt/1ft93TU
http://ift.tt/1gElokS
http://ift.tt/NEf8B8
However, in the 2D plane is definied the polar tangential angle ψ* too. Thus if I want express a curve given s and κ in terms of r and θ (or vice-versa) I need to establish a connection between the curvature κ and the polar system. So, would be correct to say that the derivative of ψ wrt s is equal to κ?
*
http://ift.tt/1ft93TU
http://ift.tt/1gElokS
http://ift.tt/NEf8B8
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