1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
Solve the equation
[tex]
\nabla^2\phi-\frac{1}{\lambda^2_D}\phi=-\frac{q_T}{\epsilon_0}\delta(r)
[/tex]
substituting the [itex]\delta[/itex] representation
[tex]
\delta(r)=\frac{1}{4\pi}\frac{q_T}{r}
[/tex]
and writing the laplacian in spherical coordinates. Use as your guess
[tex]
\phi=\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{g(r)}{r}
[/tex]
and show
[tex]
g(r)=\exp(-r/\lambda_D)
[/tex]
3. The attempt at a solution
I know how to solve this equation using the Green and Fourier formalism, but here I am asked to solve it "the easy way" (as said in "Introduction to plasma physics - Bellan").
All I can say is
[tex]
\nabla^2\left(\phi-\frac{q_T}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{1}{r}\right)-\frac{\phi}{\lambda^2}=0
[/tex]
Using the guess
[tex]
\phi=\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{g(r)}{r}
[/tex]
I have
[tex]
\frac{1}{r^2}\partial_r\left[r^2\partial_r\left(\frac{g(r)-q_T}{4\pi\epsilon_0r}\right)\right]-\frac{g}{4\pi\epsilon_0r\lambda^2}=0
[/tex]
[tex]
\frac{1}{r^2}\partial_r\left[r^2\left(\frac{r\partial_r g-(g-q_T)}{r^2}\right)\right]-\frac{g}{r\lambda^2}=0
[/tex]
[tex]
\frac{1}{r^2}(\partial_r g+r\partial_r^2g-\partial_r g)-\frac{g}{r\lambda^2}=0
[/tex]
And so the final differential equation for g(r) is
[tex]
\frac{\partial_r^2g}{r}-\frac{g}{r\lambda^2}=0
[/tex]
which has the physical solution
[tex]
g(r)=\exp(-r/\lambda)
[/tex]
This result is correct, but my doubt is: the [itex]\delta[/itex] term didn't play any role, I mean, if I solved the equation
[tex]
\nabla^2\phi-\frac{1}{\lambda^2_D}\phi=0
[/tex]
I would have obtained the same result.
I suppose that without the [itex]\delta[/itex] term there is some problem in r=0, but I don't fully understand what is the problem
Solve the equation
[tex]
\nabla^2\phi-\frac{1}{\lambda^2_D}\phi=-\frac{q_T}{\epsilon_0}\delta(r)
[/tex]
substituting the [itex]\delta[/itex] representation
[tex]
\delta(r)=\frac{1}{4\pi}\frac{q_T}{r}
[/tex]
and writing the laplacian in spherical coordinates. Use as your guess
[tex]
\phi=\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{g(r)}{r}
[/tex]
and show
[tex]
g(r)=\exp(-r/\lambda_D)
[/tex]
3. The attempt at a solution
I know how to solve this equation using the Green and Fourier formalism, but here I am asked to solve it "the easy way" (as said in "Introduction to plasma physics - Bellan").
All I can say is
[tex]
\nabla^2\left(\phi-\frac{q_T}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{1}{r}\right)-\frac{\phi}{\lambda^2}=0
[/tex]
Using the guess
[tex]
\phi=\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{g(r)}{r}
[/tex]
I have
[tex]
\frac{1}{r^2}\partial_r\left[r^2\partial_r\left(\frac{g(r)-q_T}{4\pi\epsilon_0r}\right)\right]-\frac{g}{4\pi\epsilon_0r\lambda^2}=0
[/tex]
[tex]
\frac{1}{r^2}\partial_r\left[r^2\left(\frac{r\partial_r g-(g-q_T)}{r^2}\right)\right]-\frac{g}{r\lambda^2}=0
[/tex]
[tex]
\frac{1}{r^2}(\partial_r g+r\partial_r^2g-\partial_r g)-\frac{g}{r\lambda^2}=0
[/tex]
And so the final differential equation for g(r) is
[tex]
\frac{\partial_r^2g}{r}-\frac{g}{r\lambda^2}=0
[/tex]
which has the physical solution
[tex]
g(r)=\exp(-r/\lambda)
[/tex]
This result is correct, but my doubt is: the [itex]\delta[/itex] term didn't play any role, I mean, if I solved the equation
[tex]
\nabla^2\phi-\frac{1}{\lambda^2_D}\phi=0
[/tex]
I would have obtained the same result.
I suppose that without the [itex]\delta[/itex] term there is some problem in r=0, but I don't fully understand what is the problem
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