In my electronics engineering program, we have topics on quantum mech, statistcal mech and so on(only intuitive treatment, not mathematical)....We follow'Introduction to modern physics' by Sir Arthur Beiser. I have a small doubt in the wavefunction of a system..
Let a system consist of two particles A and B and let their wave-fuctions by ψa and ψb respectively..Let ψc represent the wavefuction of the system..
In this book, it is given that
ψc is a product of ψa and ψb..
How is this possible?
We have learnt about the probability of existence of a particle by integrating the wave-function..Does this concept have anything to do with the wavefunction of the system..
Please explain me in an intuitive way without tough mathematics..
Let a system consist of two particles A and B and let their wave-fuctions by ψa and ψb respectively..Let ψc represent the wavefuction of the system..
In this book, it is given that
ψc is a product of ψa and ψb..
How is this possible?
We have learnt about the probability of existence of a particle by integrating the wave-function..Does this concept have anything to do with the wavefunction of the system..
Please explain me in an intuitive way without tough mathematics..
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