given a*(1-b^2)^1/2 +b(1-a^2)^1\2 =1 prove a^2 + b^2 =1
I tried squaring both sides and then squaring again to get
a^4 + b^4 -2b^2 -2a^2 +2a^2b^2 +1 =0
and that could be (a^2 + b^2)(a^2 + b^2) - 2(a^2 + b^2) = -1
I don't know where to go from there and not sure this is even correct.
Can someone help???
I tried squaring both sides and then squaring again to get
a^4 + b^4 -2b^2 -2a^2 +2a^2b^2 +1 =0
and that could be (a^2 + b^2)(a^2 + b^2) - 2(a^2 + b^2) = -1
I don't know where to go from there and not sure this is even correct.
Can someone help???
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