1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
In Griffiths, the following boundary condition is given without proof:
∂Aabove /∂n-∂Abelow /∂n=-μ0K
for the change in the magnetic vector potential A across a surface with surface current density K, where n is the normal direction to the surface. A later problem asks for a proof of this, by using cartesian coordinates at the surface, with z perpendicular to the surface and x parallel to the current, and using the first three equations below.
2. Relevant equations
∇.A=0
Aabove =Abelow
Babove -Bbelow =μ0(Kxn)
where n is a unit normal (I'm dropping all of the hats on my unit vectors).
The above information tell us
K=Kx
n=z
3. The attempt at a solution
First of all I have probably a really silly question because I know it's blatantly wrong, but why isn't this the case
Babove -Bbelow =μ0(Kxz)
(∇xAabove )-(∇xAbelow )=μ0(Kxz)
∇x(Aabove -Abelow )=μ0(Kxz)
0=μ0(Kxz) because Aabove =Abelow
Aside from that, the solution states that because Aabove =Abelow all over the surface, ∂A/∂x and ∂A/∂y are also the same above and below the surface. Where does this come from, and why not ∂A/∂z? I can't get any further than this at present. Thanks for any help.
In Griffiths, the following boundary condition is given without proof:
∂Aabove /∂n-∂Abelow /∂n=-μ0K
for the change in the magnetic vector potential A across a surface with surface current density K, where n is the normal direction to the surface. A later problem asks for a proof of this, by using cartesian coordinates at the surface, with z perpendicular to the surface and x parallel to the current, and using the first three equations below.
2. Relevant equations
∇.A=0
Aabove =Abelow
Babove -Bbelow =μ0(Kxn)
where n is a unit normal (I'm dropping all of the hats on my unit vectors).
The above information tell us
K=Kx
n=z
3. The attempt at a solution
First of all I have probably a really silly question because I know it's blatantly wrong, but why isn't this the case
Babove -Bbelow =μ0(Kxz)
(∇xAabove )-(∇xAbelow )=μ0(Kxz)
∇x(Aabove -Abelow )=μ0(Kxz)
0=μ0(Kxz) because Aabove =Abelow
Aside from that, the solution states that because Aabove =Abelow all over the surface, ∂A/∂x and ∂A/∂y are also the same above and below the surface. Where does this come from, and why not ∂A/∂z? I can't get any further than this at present. Thanks for any help.
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