If we have [itex]\stackrel{1}{X(x)}[/itex][itex]\stackrel{d^X}{dx^2}[/itex]=-κ^2, the literature is saying that the solution must be: e^(±iκx), but am always getting e^(±k^2x).
Isn't the approach is to decently integrate twice and then raise the ln by the exponential? Where am I going wrong? Thanks.
Isn't the approach is to decently integrate twice and then raise the ln by the exponential? Where am I going wrong? Thanks.
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