1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
A one-dimension system is in a state described by the normalisable wave function Ψ(x,t) i.e. Ψ → 0 for x → ±∞.
(a) Show that the expectation value of the position ⟨x⟩ is a real quantity. [1]
(b) Show that the expectation value of the momentum in the x-direction ⟨p⟩ is a real quantity, too. Hint: using integration by parts and normalisability show that ⟨px⟩ = ⟨p⟩∗. [4]
2. Relevant equations
1=N∫ψ*ψ.dx
<x>=∫ψ* xψ.dx over all space
<p>=∫ψ* -ih dψ/dx.dx over all space
3. The attempt at a solution
The difficult aspect of this for me is determining what the correct wave function is. Using the information given I assumed that the correct wave function was e-ax2/2 eiEt/h (where a/2 is an arbitrary constant) as it fits the above requirements (I could be wrong.)
However, upon normalising and calculating <x> and <p>, the values obtained will of course will be 0 and therefore real as my assumption was a symmetric wave function. This is all well and good, however the question explicitly states to use integration by parts to solve for <p>.
<p>=N∫(e-ax2/2 eiEt/h) -ih d/dx(e-ax2/2 e-iEt/h).dx over all space
which gave:
<p>=N iha∫xe-ax2 .dx over all space
which cannot be integrated by parts as far as I understand-perhaps it can?. Have I got the wrong end of the stick somewhere in my thinking?
Thanks in advance.
A one-dimension system is in a state described by the normalisable wave function Ψ(x,t) i.e. Ψ → 0 for x → ±∞.
(a) Show that the expectation value of the position ⟨x⟩ is a real quantity. [1]
(b) Show that the expectation value of the momentum in the x-direction ⟨p⟩ is a real quantity, too. Hint: using integration by parts and normalisability show that ⟨px⟩ = ⟨p⟩∗. [4]
2. Relevant equations
1=N∫ψ*ψ.dx
<x>=∫ψ* xψ.dx over all space
<p>=∫ψ* -ih dψ/dx.dx over all space
3. The attempt at a solution
The difficult aspect of this for me is determining what the correct wave function is. Using the information given I assumed that the correct wave function was e-ax2/2 eiEt/h (where a/2 is an arbitrary constant) as it fits the above requirements (I could be wrong.)
However, upon normalising and calculating <x> and <p>, the values obtained will of course will be 0 and therefore real as my assumption was a symmetric wave function. This is all well and good, however the question explicitly states to use integration by parts to solve for <p>.
<p>=N∫(e-ax2/2 eiEt/h) -ih d/dx(e-ax2/2 e-iEt/h).dx over all space
which gave:
<p>=N iha∫xe-ax2 .dx over all space
which cannot be integrated by parts as far as I understand-perhaps it can?. Have I got the wrong end of the stick somewhere in my thinking?
Thanks in advance.
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