I'd like some help understanding a proof, from http://ift.tt/V8Uv45. Properties are introduced, which a conditional probability ought to have:
Then a proof is given for the proposition: Whenever P(I) is positive, P(E|I) satisfies the four properties above if and only if P(E|I) = [itex]\frac {P(E \cap I)}{P(I)}[/itex].
I'm having a hard time following the proof of the "only if" part. That is, if P(E|I) satisfies the four properties above, then P(E|I) = [itex]\frac {P(E \cap I)}{P(I)}[/itex].
Here's a quote:
The proof by contradiction, seems more like a proof of the uniqueness of a conditional probability.
Anyways, I'm not really seeing the statement, *. How is it that [itex]\frac {\bar{P}(E|I)}{\bar{P}(I|I)} = \frac {P(E)}{P(I)}[/itex]?
1) Must satisfy properties of probability measures:a) for any event E, 0≤P(E)≤1;
b) P(Ω)=1;
c) Sigma-additivity: Let {E1, E2, ... En, ....} be a sequence of events, where i≠j implies Ei and Ej are mutually exclusive, then P([itex]\bigcup_{n=1}^∞ E_n[/itex]) = [itex]\sum_{n=1}^∞ P(E_n)[/itex].
2)P(I|I)=1
3) If [itex]E \subseteq I[/itex] and [itex]F \subseteq I[/itex], and P(I) is greater than 0, then [itex]\frac {P(E|I)}{P(F|I)} = \frac {P(E)}{P(F)}[/itex].
Then a proof is given for the proposition: Whenever P(I) is positive, P(E|I) satisfies the four properties above if and only if P(E|I) = [itex]\frac {P(E \cap I)}{P(I)}[/itex].
I'm having a hard time following the proof of the "only if" part. That is, if P(E|I) satisfies the four properties above, then P(E|I) = [itex]\frac {P(E \cap I)}{P(I)}[/itex].
Here's a quote:
Now we prove the 'only if' part. We prove it by contradiction. Suppose there exists another conditional probability [itex]\bar{P}[/itex] that satifies the four properties. Then There Exists an even E such that:
[itex]\bar{P}(E|I) ≠ P(E|I)[/itex]
It can not be noted that [itex]E \subseteq I[/itex], otherwise we would have:
[itex]\frac {\bar{P}(E|I)}{\bar{P}(I|I)} = \frac {\bar{P}(E|I)}1 ≠ \frac {P(E|I)}1 = \frac {P(E \cap I)}{P(I)} = \frac {P(E)}{P(I)} [/itex]
*which would be a contradiction, since if [itex]\bar{P}[/itex] was a conditional probability, it would satisfy:
[itex]\frac {\bar{P}(E|I)}{\bar{P}(I|I)} = \frac {P(E)}{P(I)}[/itex]
The proof by contradiction, seems more like a proof of the uniqueness of a conditional probability.
Anyways, I'm not really seeing the statement, *. How is it that [itex]\frac {\bar{P}(E|I)}{\bar{P}(I|I)} = \frac {P(E)}{P(I)}[/itex]?
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